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  1. I bet if you asked GL who is Hal jordon or John Stewart he wouldnt have a clue.
  2. Your humble opinion hasnt amounted to much. You literally said this 10 days ago...¨ I believe that they are Article 8 complaint and they can RV / RI at anytime the cbi wants to!¨ How can you go from one extreme opinion to the complete opposite so quickly? Perhaps you shouldnt listen to people like Perry Stone that SELLS religion. The Bible tells us that if we receive free then give free. Anyone selling stuff is a charlatan.
  3. They are on franks site. Everyone makes fun of Frank but have no qualms about stealing his info.
  4. Not to mention the reinstatement has NOTHING to do with a government. It is strictly CBI.
  5. No, when John 1:1 it says THE Word. Not Mouth, not words...THE Word. Can you show me where a being called THE WORD spoke to anyone in the hebrew scriptures? You keep posting scriptures that have nothing to do with what we are talking about....I wonder why you fill up the page with them? Why dont you post Jeremiah 5:8. It would make about as much sense.
  6. Try to wait until I have responded before doing another post please. Search For Bible Truths: In John 10:30, does Jesus say that he and his Father are one person? "In John 10:30, does Jesus say that he and his Father are one person?" No. Jesus, at John 10:30, said: "I and the Father are one.” Many Bible Greek experts tell us that Bible writers consistently described groups of individuals as “one” figuratively in the sense of their being “united in will and purpose." Even the very TRINITARIAN New Testament Greek scholar W. E. Vine when discussing the Greek word for “one” says: “(b) metaphorically [figuratively], union and concord, e.g., John 10:30; 11:52; 17:11, 21, 22....” - An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, p. 809. Jesus said at John 17:22: “The glory which thou hast given me I have given to them; that they may be one, just as we are one.” - NASB. (Compare John 17:11. - A footnote for John 17:11 in the very trinitarian The NIV Study Bible, Zondervan, 1985 says: “the unity is to be like that between the Father and the Son.”) Not only is it obvious that these Christians are not equally Christ with Jesus, nor equally God with the Father, nor are they all one person, but that they are all figuratively united in “will” and “purpose” with God. That is, they agree with and carry out the Father's will. Also important is that the word “one” at John 10:30 and 17:22 is the neuter form hen. The two other forms for “one” are mia, which is the feminine form, and heis, the masculine form. Those who insist that John 10:30 means “the Father and I are one God” are clearly wrong as shown by New Testament Greek grammar alone. “God” in New Testament Greek is always masculine and must take masculine forms of adjectives, pronouns, etc. in agreement (see Mark 12:29, 32; 1 Cor. 8:4; Eph. 4:4-6 in interlinear Bibles). Or, as Dr. Marshall puts it in one of his basic NT Greek grammar rules: “Adjectives must agree with the nouns they modify in number, gender,...and case”. - p. 25, Rule 7, New Testament Greek Primer, Alfred Marshall, Zondervan Publishing, 1978 printing. (Compare 1 Cor. 3:8 in interlinear Bible [esp. note footnote in The Zondervan Parallel New Testament in Greek and English] with NIV; NAB; LB; and CBW.) Therefore, the use of the neuter “one” (hen) at John 10:30 shows “one God” could not have been intended by Jesus but instead shows “metaphorically, union and concord”! It is possible to have gender irregularities when someone is described figuratively (“metaphorically”) such as “he is a Rock” or “Jesus is the Lamb,” but when he is being literally described we must have gender agreement. If we insist on supplying an “understood” ‘God,’ it must be at a place which uses the masculine form of “one” (heis) in gender agreement (cf. Mark 10:18; Ro. 3:30). Trinitarian scholar Robert Young commented on this knowledge of the word “one” at John 10:30 in his Young’s Concise Critical Bible Commentary: “The particle en [hen] being of the neuter gender, can hardly signify ‘one being, i.e. one God,’ but rather ‘one in will, purpose, counsel...” - p. 62, Baker Book House, 1977. The very trinitarian Bible study reference book, The Bible Knowledge Commentary, agrees with trinitarian Young (above) in its discussion of John 10:30. Truly, then, there is absolutely no evidence for a “trinitarian” interpretation at John 10:30. In fact, the real meaning shows Jesus is not God.
  7. Why? Are you sick or something? Oh sorry...Edit. I see you are saying haha. So not sick.
  8. Fleming saying there cannot be an rv aaannnddd meanwhile, he has called it numerous times.
  9. Well, you surely are saying Jesus is God. So if you believe Jesus is God because of John 1:1 then you have to believe Satan is God at 2 Corinthians 4:4 How does that wordplay taste? So since we know that Satan isnt God then we also know that Jesus isnt God either. You cannot have it both ways. By the way....John 1:1 Jesus is called the word. WHAT does it mean to be called the Word?
  10. Wow. This is the most positive post I have ever seen you write!
  11. You are 100% correct about hell being translated into grave. That is all it will ever mean. Thanks for your post.
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