Let,s say you have a $200k mortgage. You make $100k per year in salary. You have $100k in the bank in cash. The U.S. decides to RD and now you technically still owe $200k on your house. You now only have $100.00 new USD in your bank account. I would also assume that your employer would now only pay you $100.00 per year. How would that work based on your mortgage contract? Additionally, if the U.S. owes China, for example only, $1,000,000 today, does that mean that the U.S. would then only owe the Chinese $1,000? I know I would not be too pleased with that, and would not think the Chinese would be either. Anyone have any thoughts how this would work? There are contracts out there which would need to be taken into consideration. Above scenario is based on dropping three zero's from USD.